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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q26-Q31):
NEW QUESTION # 26
Ex-ante security attribution seeks to identify:
- A. An appropriate benchmark
- B. Why the portfolio performed the way it did
- C. Future risks
- D. Portfolio outperformance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ex-ante attribution focuses on predicting future risks and returns, whereas ex-post attribution analyzes past performance.
* Why is Option D Correct?
* Ex-ante means "before the event", so it identifies potential risks before they impact returns.
* Used in risk forecasting and portfolio stress testing.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A & B (Portfolio outperformance, past performance) # These relate to ex-post (historical) attribution.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Performance Attribution), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
NEW QUESTION # 27
How would an active fund manager seek to avoid underperforming their peer group when deciding on asset allocation?
- A. By hedging currency and market risk
- B. By assessing the prospects for each main asset class
- C. Through the use of quantitative models
- D. Through the use of asset allocation by consensus
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Active Fund Management
* Active fund managers aim to outperform or avoid underperforming their peers by dynamically managing asset allocation.
* Asset allocation by consensusensures alignment with the strategies and expectations of the broader investment community, minimizing the risk of significant divergence from the peer group.
* Why the Answer is A
* Using consensus-driven allocation avoids extreme deviations in performance relative to peers, which is key for managers seeking to maintain competitive performance.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* B. Assessing prospects: This involves market analysis but does not specifically address peer performance.
* C. Hedging risks: Focuses on risk management, not peer alignment.
* D. Quantitative models: Useful for analysis but not tailored to peer group considerations.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Portfolio Management: Discusses consensus-driven asset allocation.
* Active Fund Management Literature: Highlights peer-relative performance strategies.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isA. Through the use of asset allocation by consensus.
NEW QUESTION # 28
ROCE can be used to establish which of the following?
- A. The net profitability of the business
- B. Net profit in relation to the cost of sales
- C. Impact of borrowing costs on company performance
- D. Returns generated from capital invested in the business
Answer: D
Explanation:
* ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
* Measures the efficiency and profitability of a company relative to the capital invested in the business.
* Formula: ROCE=Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT)Capital Employed ext{ROCE} = rac
{ ext{Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT)}}{ ext{Capital Employed}} ROCE=Capital EmployedEarnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT)
* Why the Answer is C
* ROCE specifically focuses on the returns generated from the capital base, providing insight into how effectively the business is using its resources.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Net profitability: Refers to net profit margins, not ROCE.
* B. Borrowing costs: ROCE ignores borrowing costs as it considers EBIT.
* D. Net profit in relation to cost of sales: Refers to gross profit margin, not ROCE.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Financial Ratios: Covers ROCE and its applications.
* Corporate Finance Texts: Defines ROCE as a key performance metric.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isC. Returns generated from capital invested in the business.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Why should standard deviation, as a measure of volatility, not be used on its own?
- A. Because the data is difficult to interpret
- B. Standard deviation only works for small fluctuations
- C. The data is historic
- D. Because it cannot be used to compare all assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
Standard deviation is a widely used measure of volatility, but it has a significant limitation: it is based on past data, which may not reflect future risks.
* Key Limitations of Standard Deviation:
* It only measures historical price fluctuations, not future risks.
* It assumes normal distribution, which may not hold in financial markets.
* It does not distinguish between upside and downside volatility.
* Alternative Measures of Risk:
* Value at Risk (VaR) - Estimates potential losses under extreme market conditions.
* Beta - Measures risk relative to the overall market.
* Sharpe Ratio - Assesses risk-adjusted returns.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Risk Metrics), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
NEW QUESTION # 30
What causes the price of a closed-ended investment company to trade at a premium or discount to net asset value (NAV)?
- A. The level of charges within the fund
- B. Current level of interest rates
- C. Supply and demand
- D. The tax status of the fund
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Price of Closed-Ended Investment Companies:
* These companies issue a fixed number of shares. Prices can trade at a premium or discount to NAV based on market demand and supply for their shares.
* Strong demand increases prices above NAV (premium), while weak demand decreases prices below NAV (discount).
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Charges affect long-term returns but not immediate pricing.
* B: Tax status is generally consistent and not a determinant of premiums or discounts.
* D: Interest rates indirectly affect demand but are not a direct cause.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Discussion on pricing mechanisms of closed-ended funds and NAV premiums
/discounts.
NEW QUESTION # 31
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